Problem 1:
The sketch below illustrates the setup of the Stern-Gerlach experiment that
historically confirmed the quantum nature of an atomic-scale system,
specifically, the quantization of angular momentum. In this setup, silver atoms
are heated in an oven, creating a beam of atoms that goes through a collimator.
The beam is then subjected to an inhomogeneous magnetic field before colliding
with a glass plate.
Answer the following questions about this experiment.
(a) Why is an inhomogeneous magnetic field needed?
(b) If the electron spin angular momentum is a classical
quantity, what will be the distribution of silver atoms on
the plate?
(c) Based on your knowledge of electron spin,
i.e., the quantum mechanical description, how do you
predict the distribution of silver atoms on the plate?
Solution:
- Concepts:
The Stern-Gerlach experiment
- Reasoning:
In an inhomogeneous magnetic field, a magnetic dipole can experience a force
and a torque.
- Details of the calculation:
(a) The electron has a magnetic
moment μ proportional to its spin S, μ = γS, with γ
= -|qe|/me a constant of proportionality. In an external
magnetic field, a magnetic moment can experience a force and a torque.
The force tries to pull an aligned dipole into regions where the magnitude of
the magnetic field is larger and push an anti-aligned dipole into regions where
magnitude the magnetic field is smaller. If the
magnetic field is pointing into the z-direction, the force on a magnetic dipole
in that field is given by Fz = μzdBz/dz. Here μz =
μ cosθ is the z-component of the magnetic moment. If B is constant, then dBz/dz
= 0, and there is no force.
(b) In an inhomogeneous field where dBz/dz
is not zero, the magnetic dipole experiences a force in the z-direction, unless
θ = 90o and μz= 0. Since for a classical quantity μ can
point into any direction the force Fz can have any value from -μdBz/dz to +μdBz/dz. If we passed a beam of electrons, which are bound in a
system that has no net charge and zero orbital angular momentum,
and whose magnetic moments are randomly oriented and cannot change their
orientation during the passage through an inhomogeneous magnetic field,
different electrons would be deflected by different amounts.
(c) Assume the electrons are
moving into the y-direction and pass through a magnet with an inhomogeneous field pointing into the positive z-direction.
In the figure the magnetic field points
from the north pole to the south pole. The magnitude of the field is larger
near the south pole, because of the taper of the south pole piece. The force
experienced by a magnetic moment is Fz = μzdBz/dz.
Here dB/dz is positive, since B becomes more positive as z increases. For a
particle with Sz = ħ/2, the z-component of the magnetic moment, μz,
is negative, and therefore Fz is negative. A particle with Sz =
ħ/2 is deflected downward. A particle with Sz = -ħ/2 is deflected
upward. The amount of deflection up or down is exactly the same.
Problem 2:
A spin ½ particle is represented by the following spinor |χ> =
A
.
Here we have used the eigenspinors of the operator Sz as our basis.
'A' is a normalization constant.
(a) If you measure Sz of this particle, what values do you get
and what is the probability of each.
(b) Find <Sz>.
(c) If you measured Sx instead, what values do you get and what
is the probability of each?
Solution:
- Concepts:
The two dimensional state space of a spin ½ particle, the postulates of Quantum
Mechanics
- Reasoning:
Sz and Sx do not commute. The eigenstates of Sx
are linear combinations of eigenstates of Sz.
|+>x = 2-½
(|+> + |->), |->x = 2-½
(|+> - |->).
- Details of the calculation:
(a) The outcome of a measurement of Sz yields one of its eigenvalues,
ħ/2 or -ħ/2.
The probability of obtaining ħ/2 is 5A2 and the probability of
obtaining -ħ/2 is 4A2.
(5 + 4)A2 = 1, A = 1/3, P(ħ/2) = 5/9, P(-ħ/2) = 4/9.
(b) <Sz> = (5/9)ħ/2 - (4/9)ħ/2 = ħ/18.
(c) The outcome of a measurement of Sx yields one of its
eigenvalues, ħ/2 or -ħ/2.
|+> = 2-½(|+>x + |->x), |-> = 2-½(|+>x - |->x).
|χ> = 2-½(1/3)[(1-2i)(|+>x + |->x)
+ 2(|+>x - |->x)] = 2-½(1/3)[(3-2i)|+>x
+ (-1-2i)|->x].
P(ħ/2)x = 13/18, P(-ħ/2)x = 5/18.
<Sx> = (13/18)ħ/2 - (5/18)ħ/2 = 4ħ/9.
Problem 3:
A particle of mass m in
an infinite square well of width L starts out in the left half of the well
and is at t = 0 equally likely to be found at any point in that region. Assume
that at t = 0 the particle's wave function is positive-real and constant for 0 < x < L/2, and zero
everywhere else.
(a) What is
its initial normalized state ψ(x,0)?
(b) Expand ψ(x,0) in terms of the eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian for the
infinite square well and determine the expansion coefficients.
(c) What is the probability that a measurement of the energy at t = 0 would
yield the value π2ħ2/(2mL2)
in that state?
(d) Assume that the energy in (c) is measured at time tm.
Determine the state of the particle for all t > tm.
Solution:
- Concepts:
The infinite square well, postulates of QM
- Reasoning:
The particle is in a superposition of eigenstates of the infinite well.
- Details of the calculation:
(a) ψ(x,0) = (2/L)½. 0 < x < L/2.
(b) The normalized eigenfunctions and eigenvalues of H for the infinite square
well are
ψn(x) = (2/L)½sin(nπx/L), En = n2π2ħ2/(2mL2).
ψ(x,0) is a superposition of eigenstates of H. ψ(x,0) = (2/L)½∑an
sin(nπx/L).
ak = ∫0Lψk*(x) ψ(x,0)dx = (2/L)½∫0L ψ(x,0) sin(kπx/L)
dx = (2/L)∫0L/2sin(kπx/L) dx.
ak = (L/(kπ))(2/L)∫0 kπ/2sin(y) dy = (2/(kπ))(1
- cos(kπ/2)).
ak = 2/(kπ) if k = odd,
ak = 4/(kπ) if k = 2, 6, 10, ... , ak
= 0 if k = 4, 8, 12, ... .
(c) The
probability that a measurement of the energy at t = 0 will yield the value π2ħ2/(2mL2)
is |a1|2 = 4/π2.
(d) If the
measurement at t = tm yields an eigenvalue E1, then the
state of the particle for all t > tm is
Ψ1(x,
t) = (2/L)½sin(πx/L)exp(-iE1t/ ħ).
Problem 4:
A one-dimensional potential barrier or square well problem is defined by the Hamiltonian H = (P2/2m)
+ U(x), with U(x) = ζU0Θ(ℓ/2 - |x|).
Here Θ(z) = 0 for z < 0 and Θ(z) = 1 for z > 0, ζ
= +1 for potential barriers and ζ = -1 for square wells.
(a) Calculate the transmittance T for E = 1 eV incident electrons facing a potential barrier of U0
= 2 eV and ℓ = 1 Å. What is the probability
that a 1 eV protons will tunnel through the barrier?
(b) Infer from (a) the general expression for the transmittance T, and draw T as a function of ℓ
for E = 2.25 eV electrons.
(c) Calculate eigenfunctions and eigenvalues of the square well in the
limit U0 --> ∞.
Solution:
- Concepts:
This is a "square potential" problem. We solve HΦ(x)
= EΦ(x) in regions where U(x) is constant and
apply boundary conditions.
- Reasoning:
We are given a piecewise constant potential. We have a potential that
has a value of U0 (barrier) or -U0 (well) from x = -ℓ/2 to
x = ℓ/2 and is zero otherwise. We are asked to find the transmittance coefficient T.
- Details of the calculation:
Let x' = x + ℓ/2. Divide space into 3 regions.
region 1: x' < 0, region 2: 0 < x' < ℓ, region 3: x' > ℓ.
(a) potential barrier, E < U0.
The most general solutions in regions 1, 2, and 3 are
Φ1(x') = A1exp(ik1x')
+ A1'exp(-ik1x'),
Φ2(x')
= A2exp(ρ2x')
+ A2'exp(-ρ2x'),
Φ3(x')
= A3exp(ik1x').
Here k12 = (2m/ħ2)E
and ρ22
= (2m/ħ2)(U0 - E).
The boundary conditions are that
Φ(x') and (∂/∂x')Φ(x')
are continuous at x' = 0 and x' = ℓ.
x' = 0: A1 + A1'
= A2 + A2' , ik1A1 - ik1A1'
= ρ2A2
- ρ2A2'.
x' = ℓ:
A2exp(ρ2ℓ)
+ A2'exp(-ρ2ℓ)
= A3exp(ik1ℓ),
ρ2A2exp(ik2ℓ)
- ρ2A2'exp(-ρ2ℓ)
= ikiA3exp(ik1ℓ).
We need to solve these equations for A3 in terms of A1.
(i) Solve for A2 and A2' in terms of A3.
A2 = ½exp((ik1 - ρ2)ℓ)(1
+ ik1/ρ2)A3
= C A3.
A2' = ½exp((ik1 + ρ2)ℓ)(1
- ik1/ρ2)A3
= C' A3.
(ii) Now solve for A1 in terms of A3.
2A1 = A2 + A2' + (ρ2/ik1)(A2
- A2') = (C + C' + (ρ2/ik1)(C
- C'))A3.
A1 = ([(k12 - ρ22))/(2ik1ρ2)]sinhρ2ℓ
+ coshρ2ℓ)exp(ik1a)A3.
T = |A3/A1|2 = 4k12ρ22/[(k12
- ρ22)2sinh2ρ2ℓ
+ 4k12ρ22cosh2ρ2ℓ]
= 4k12ρ22/[(k12
+ ρ22)2sinh2ρ2ℓ
+ 4k12ρ22].
[cosh2x - sinh2x = 1.]
T = 4E(U0
- E)/[U02sinh2[(2m(U0
- E)/ħ2)1/2ℓ] + 4E(U0 - E)].
If U0 = 2 eV, E = 1 e V, and ℓ
= 1 Å and the particle is
an electron then
T = 1/(1 + sinh2[(2m(U0 - E)/ħ2)1/2ℓ]
= 1/(1 + sinh2(0.54)) = 0.76.
If U0 = 2 eV, E = 1 eV, and ℓ
= 1 Å and the particle is
an proton then
T = 3.3*10-20.
(b) If we have a barrier of height U0
and 0 < E < U0
the general expression for T is
T = 4E(U0
- E)/[U02sinh2[(2m(U0 - E)/ħ2)1/2ℓ]
+ 4E(U0 - E)].
If we have a barrier of height U0
and E > U0, or if we have a well (U0 <
0) and E > 0 the
general
expression for T is
T = 4E(E - U0)/[U02sin2[(2m(E
- U0)/ħ2)1/2ℓ] + 4E(E - U0)].
We can consider this second expression the general expression for T valid
for all one-dimensional potential barrier or square well scattering problems,
if we use the fact that sin2(ix) = -sinh2(x).
For
U0 = 2 eV, E = 2.25 eV we have
T = 2.25/[4sin2[(0.5 eV m/ħ2)1/2ℓ)]
+ 2.25].
For an electron (0.5 eV m/ħ2)1/2 = 0.256/Å.
(c) We have a symmetric infinite square well.
H =
-(ħ2/2m)(∂2/∂x2)
+ U(x), U(x) = 0 for |x| < ℓ/2 and U(x) =
∞ for |x| > ℓ.
Change to the variable x'.
H =
-(ħ2/2m)(∂2/∂x'2)
+ U(x'), U(x') = 0 for 0 < x' < ℓ and U(x') =
∞ for x' < 0 and x' > ℓ.
(∂2/∂x'2)Φ(x')
+ (2m/ħ2)EΦ(x') = 0 in the region 0 < x' < ℓ.
Most general solution: Φ(x') = Aexp(ikx') + Bexp(-ikx'), with E = ħ2k2/(2m)
in the region 0 < x' < ℓ.
Φ(x') = 0 for x' < 0 and x' > ℓ.
Boundary conditions: Φ(x') = 0 at x' = 0 and x' = ℓ.
Therefore k = nπ/ℓ and Φ(x') = (2/L)½sin(nπx'/ℓ).
Φn(x) =
(2/L)½cos(nπx/(2ℓ)),
n = odd, Φn(x) = (2/L)½sin(nπx/(2ℓ)),
n = even.
En = n2π2ħ2/(2mℓ2).
Problem 5:
Find <x> and ∆x for the nth stationary state of a free particle in one
dimension restricted to the interval 0 < x < a. Show that as n --> ∞ these become the
classical values.
Solution:
- Concepts:
The eigenfunctions of the infinite square well, the postulates of quantum mechanics
- Reasoning:
The expression for the mean value of an observable
x in the normalized state |ψ> is
<x> = <ψ|x|ψ>.
The root mean square deviation
∆x is given by
∆x = (<x2> - <x>2)½.
Here ψn(x)
= (2/a)½sin(nπx/a),
En = n2π2ħ2/(2ma2).
- Details of the calculation:
<x>n = (2/a)∫0a
x sin2(nπx/a)dx
= a/2.
<x2>n
= (2/a)∫0a
x2 sin2(nπx/a)dx
= (2/a)(a/(nπ))3∫0nπ
x2 sin2(x)dx
= (2a2/(nπ)3)(nπ)3/6
- (2a2/(nπ)3)nπ/4
= a2/3 - ½a2/(nπ)2.
∆xn =
(a2/12 - ½a2/(nπ)2)½
--> a/12½ as n --> ∞.
Classically, the particle is moving back and forth in
the well. It is equally likely to be found at any position.
The average position xavg is
a/2.
For x2avg we have x2avg
= a2/3. (∫0a
P(x)
x2dx
with P(x) = 1/a.)
If we define
∆x = (x2avg -
xavg2)½
we have
∆x = a/12½.